Back to the CompTIA CySA+ full analysis

CompTIA CySA+: a sample evaluation and study guide

This exam is given in English only.

Owner: CompTIA · Read: · Source: CySA+ V4 (CS0-004) exam page

This is a sample, not a real person's result. The learner is invented: 20 answers across 4 domains, 12 right, an exam in 42 days and 5 hours a week.

The questions, explanations, sources, checklists and the plan arithmetic are real. They come from the same code that builds a buyer's package, so your own report has the same parts, fitted to your answers, your exam date and your hours.

The questions were drafted by AI from the official outline and primary sources and checked by our process. No licensed professional has reviewed them. Nobody at DecipherU reads your answers. This does not predict your result on the real exam.

Sample: CompTIA CySA+ results package

Built from an invented learner's answers, your exam date (Dec 6) and 5 hours a week. Each question counts once, by the first answer. As of 2026-10-25.

Readiness index

65 out of 100

Measured: 4 of 4 domains, 20 first answers of 40 questions in the bank.

What would change it

  • Vulnerability Management at 80%: index 75 (+10)
  • Reporting and Communication at 80%: index 74 (+9)

The index is the average of your first-answer rate in each measured domain, weighted by the exam owner's published domain weights. It measures your answers here. It does not predict your result on the real exam.

Diagnosis by domain

Highest priority first. A percentage appears only after 3 first answers in the domain.

DomainReadingSure, wrongMissed now
Vulnerability Management 26%Under 80%
40% right on first answers, 2 of 5.
13
Reporting and Communication 16%Under 80%
20% right on first answers, 1 of 5.
14
Security Operations 34%80% or more
80% right on first answers, 4 of 5.
11
Incident Response and Management 24%80% or more
100% right on first answers, 5 of 5.
00

Your study plan

Fits Everything fits with room to spare: about 5 h 44 min of 30 h available.

  1. Week 1 Oct 25 to Oct 312 h 36 min of 5 h

    • 35 min Read the Vulnerability Management summary and key concepts
    • 13 min Practice Vulnerability Management: 10 questions Comes back for review on Oct 26, Oct 28, Nov 1, Nov 15.
    • 20 min Read the Reporting and Communication summary and key concepts
    • 8 min Practice Reporting and Communication: 6 questions Comes back for review on Oct 26, Oct 28, Nov 1, Nov 15.
    • 35 min Read the Security Operations summary and key concepts
    • 2 min Practice Security Operations: 1 question Comes back for review on Oct 26, Oct 28, Nov 1, Nov 15.
    • 35 min Read the Incident Response and Management summary and key concepts
    • 8 min Review what you missed and the cards that are due
  2. Week 2 Nov 1 to Nov 74 min of 5 h

    • 4 min Review what you missed and the cards that are due
  3. Week 3 Nov 8 to Nov 140 min of 5 h

    • Nothing scheduled.
  4. Week 4 Nov 15 to Nov 214 min of 5 h

    • 4 min Review what you missed and the cards that are due
  5. Week 5 Nov 22 to Nov 280 min of 5 h

    • Nothing scheduled.
  6. Week 6 Nov 29 to Dec 53 h of 5 h

    • 2 h 45 min Timed mock exam on the real clock
    • 15 min Read the exam-day packet and check your ID and appointment
Why the plan is built this way
  • PLAUSIBLEThe weakest domains come first because your own answers set the order. Using a result to allocate hours is our method, not a tested one. (Kornell et al., 2009)
  • PLAUSIBLEEach domain opens with a short read and then moves to questions. New material needs a first pass, and rereading is not the plan. (Dunlosky et al., 2013)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDThe practice blocks are questions answered from memory, in sets of 25, because testing yourself beat restudying in lab and classroom studies. (Roediger and Karpicke, 2006 and others)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDMisses come back after 1, 3, 7 and 21 days. The research supports spacing reviews over weeks and sizing the gap to the days left, not those exact steps. (Cepeda et al., 2008 and others)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDThe first pass fills each week to about 70 percent of your hours and leaves slack. People predict their own task times too optimistically. (Buehler et al., 1994)
  • PLAUSIBLEThe weeks are counted back from your exam date, with the timed mock near the end and the exam-day packet in the last week. (A sound way to fix the end of the plan; no study compares forward and backward planning for licensing exams.)
  • PLAUSIBLETake the timed mock on the real clock and review it the same day. How many mocks help is untested. (Dunlosky et al., 2013 and others)

PLAUSIBLE Reasonable and partly studied, but not tested on exams, or the results are mixed.

EVIDENCE-BACKED At least one peer-reviewed study or official source found the effect or states the fact. A study can be small.

Pretesting helps learning; using the result to allocate hours is our method.

Learn a topic in a block first, then mix. New material needs a first pass.

Tested students kept more at two days and one week than students who restudied, and the result held in a randomized trial with medical residents at six months.

The best gap was a larger share of short delays and a smaller share of long ones.

People predicted their own task times too optimistically; the 80 percent figure is our default.

A sound way to fix the end of the plan; no study compares forward and backward planning for licensing exams.

Practice testing is highly rated and format consistency matters; the number of mocks is untested.

Sources

  • Kornell, N., Hays, M. J., & Bjork, R. A. (2009). Unsuccessful retrieval attempts enhance subsequent learning. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Learning, Memory, and Cognition, 35(4), 989-998. doi.org/10.1037/a0015729
  • Dunlosky, J., Rawson, K. A., Marsh, E. J., Nathan, M. J., & Willingham, D. T. (2013). Improving students' learning with effective learning techniques: Promising directions from cognitive and educational psychology. Psychological Science in the Public Interest, 14(1), 4-58. doi.org/10.1177/1529100612453266
  • Roediger, H. L., & Karpicke, J. D. (2006). Test-enhanced learning: Taking memory tests improves long-term retention. Psychological Science, 17(3), 249-255. doi.org/10.1111/j.1467-9280.2006.01693.x
  • Yang, C., Luo, L., Vadillo, M. A., Yu, R., & Shanks, D. R. (2021). Testing (quizzing) boosts classroom learning: A systematic and meta-analytic review. Psychological Bulletin, 147(4), 399-435. doi.org/10.1037/bul0000309
  • Larsen, D. P., Butler, A. C., & Roediger, H. L., III. (2009). Repeated testing improves long-term retention relative to repeated study: A randomised controlled trial. Medical Education, 43(12), 1174-1181. doi.org/10.1111/j.1365-2923.2009.03518.x
  • Cepeda, N. J., Vul, E., Rohrer, D., Wixted, J. T., & Pashler, H. (2008). Spacing effects in learning: A temporal ridgeline of optimal retention. Psychological Science, 19(11), 1095-1102. doi.org/10.1111/j.1467-9280.2008.02209.x
  • Cepeda, N. J., Pashler, H., Vul, E., Wixted, J. T., & Rohrer, D. (2006). Distributed practice in verbal recall tasks: A review and quantitative synthesis. Psychological Bulletin, 132(3), 354-380. doi.org/10.1037/0033-2909.132.3.354
  • Kornell, N. (2009). Optimising learning using flashcards: Spacing is more effective than cramming. Applied Cognitive Psychology, 23(9), 1297-1317. doi.org/10.1002/acp.1537
  • Buehler, R., Griffin, D., & Ross, M. (1994). Exploring the "planning fallacy": Why people underestimate their task completion times. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 67(3), 366-381. doi.org/10.1037/0022-3514.67.3.366

How the minutes are counted
  • Reading is counted at 200 words a minute plus 15 minutes for each of the first 2 official sources of a domain.
  • Each practice question is counted at 48 seconds plus 30 seconds to read the explanation.
  • 40% of answered questions are expected to come back for review, on days 1, 3, 7, 21 after the set, at 20 seconds a card.
  • This schedules the material in this package. It does not estimate how many hours you need to pass.

Notes for the domains to fix

Assembled from the exam owner's domain summary, the official sources listed for each domain, and the questions you missed. Numbers in brackets open the source.

Vulnerability Management 26%

40% right on first answers, 2 of 5. This domain is 26% of the exam.

Discovery, analysis, prioritization, validation, and reporting of vulnerabilities.

Key concepts
  • Scanning: authenticated vs unauthenticated, agent-based, OSINT
  • CVSS v3.1 and v4.0 scoring
  • EPSS for exploitation prioritization
  • CISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEV) catalog
  • Validation: false-positive analysis, exploit proof-of-concept
Questions you missed here
  • An OpenVAS scan at a law firm flags CVE-2021-41773 (Apache path traversal) on a Debian web server because the banner reports Apache/2.4.49.…marked sure
    Banner-based detection reports the upstream version string, and distributions that backport fixes keep the original string while patching the code. NIST SP 800-40 Rev. 4 treats verification of what is actually installed as part of patch management, and a finding is closed as a false positive only after validation. The changelog for the 4+deb11u1 revision names the CVE, and a harmless traversal request such as a URL-encoded ../ to a known file confirms the fix. Calling it a true positive on banner evidence alone would trigger an unnecessary upgrade. A false negative means a real flaw went unreported, which is the opposite case. True negative describes a correct non-finding, and the scanner did produce a finding. [4]
  • A penetration tester at an MSP scans a client's DMZ host with nmap -sS -p 22,80,443,8443 203.0.113.40. The output reads: 22/tcp filtered…
    Nmap's port-scanning documentation defines the states precisely. Open means an application accepted the SYN. Closed means the port is accessible but the host sent a RST, so no listener is present. Filtered means Nmap cannot tell whether the port is open because packet filtering blocked the probe, typically with no reply or an ICMP unreachable. Filtered therefore says nothing about whether sshd is running; it says a firewall is in the path. The two states are not interchangeable: 8443 proves the host is reachable and simply has no service, while 22 is being screened. The client's question is answered as 'not reachable from this vantage point, and a firewall rule is the reason'. [5]
  • A DevOps engineer at a SaaS startup reviews application logs for a feature that fetches a preview image from any URL a user supplies. One…
    The server made an outbound request to an attacker-chosen address, and that address was the cloud metadata endpoint, which hands out temporary IAM credentials. That is server-side request forgery as CWE-918 defines it. The defence is to constrain where the server may connect, reject link-local and RFC 1918 targets after DNS resolution, and enforce the token-based metadata service so a simple GET no longer returns credentials. CSRF tricks a victim's browser into sending a request, but here the server is the requester. Open redirect concerns bouncing a browser to another site. Directory traversal reads local filesystem paths, and this request went over HTTP to a network address. [6]
Sources
  1. NIST SP 800-115 Technical Guide to Security Testing
  2. EPSS by FIRST
  3. CISA KEV catalog
  4. NIST SP 800-40 Rev. 4, Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning
  5. Nmap Reference Guide, Port Scanning Basics
  6. CWE-918: Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)

Reporting and Communication 16%

20% right on first answers, 1 of 5. This domain is 16% of the exam.

How to communicate findings to technical and non-technical audiences.

Key concepts
  • Vulnerability report structure, severity classification, remediation timeline
  • Stakeholder identification and audience-appropriate communication
  • Compliance reporting: GDPR Article 33, SEC cybersecurity disclosure, HIPAA breach notification
  • Metrics and KPIs for SOC and vulnerability management programs
Questions you missed here
  • A SOC lead at a bank wants to share indicators from an active intrusion with a peer bank's security team so they can check for the same…marked sure
    FIRST's TLP 2.0 defines four labels. TLP:AMBER permits the recipient to share within their organisation and with its clients on a need-to-know basis. TLP:AMBER+STRICT removes the client allowance and restricts the information to the recipient organisation only, which matches the legal team's instruction that the peer bank's parent company and any customers stay out of the loop. TLP:GREEN allows sharing across the whole community, far wider than two teams. TLP:CLEAR carries no restriction at all, and indicators tied to an unannounced intrusion would reveal that the bank is under attack. The marking must appear on the report and in the email so the recipient's obligations are unambiguous. [2]
  • At 14:20 a SOC analyst at a logistics firm confirms that ransomware has encrypted the warehouse management system and a ransom note names…
    NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 states that incident notification should follow the procedures in the response plan, with the incident handling team informing management and the parties the plan designates, and it warns against ad hoc external communication. The analyst's job is to declare the incident and escalate; legal counsel then shapes what customers and regulators are told and when law enforcement is engaged, and the communications team owns media contact. Speaking to the journalist commits the company to facts that may change and may prejudice legal strategy. A customer timeline from an analyst bypasses legal review and contractual notification terms. A public post makes an unvetted admission to attackers, competitors, and regulators simultaneously. [3]
  • A public US-listed company discovers a material cybersecurity incident on a Tuesday. Per SEC Item 1.05 of Form 8-K (effective December…
    SEC Item 1.05 of Form 8-K (released July 2023, effective December 2023) requires disclosure within four business days of the determination that an incident is material. The trigger is materiality determination, not incident discovery. GDPR Article 33's 72-hour rule applies to data-protection-authority notification, not US SEC investor disclosure. [1]
  • A SOC manager at an MSP presents quarterly metrics to a client's board. One slide shows: phishing incident opened 09:10, malicious email…
    NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 recommends tracking incident data such as the time from an incident's start to its discovery and the time from discovery to each response step, and CySA+ frames those as MTTD and MTTR. Detection is measured from when the attack began (delivery at 06:42) to when the SOC knew (09:10), which is 2 hours 28 minutes; that is the dwell the board cares about. Response runs from detection to containment (09:10 to 11:55), 2 hours 45 minutes. Swapping the two values misreads which interval each metric covers. Collapsing them into one window hides whether the weakness is in detection or in response. Setting MTTD to zero ignores the two and a half hours the attacker had before anyone noticed. [3]
Sources
  1. SEC Cybersecurity Disclosure Rules
  2. FIRST Traffic Light Protocol (TLP) 2.0
  3. NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, Section 3.2.7 Incident Notification

Review cards from your misses

One card per question you missed, the ones you were sure about first. Cover the answer, say it out loud, then check. Look at each card again on the days listed: 1, 3, 7 and 21 days from Oct 25. If you miss it again, start that card over.

Why the cards work this way
  • PLAUSIBLECover the answer and say it out loud before you look. Recalling beats recognizing, and the cover-the-options habit is our adaptation for multiple choice. (Rowland, 2014 and others)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDCome back to the questions you missed after a gap. Our default steps are 1, 3, 7 and 21 days. The research supports spacing and sizing the gap to the days left, not those exact numbers. (Cepeda et al., 2008 and others)

PLAUSIBLE Reasonable and partly studied, but not tested on exams, or the results are mixed.

EVIDENCE-BACKED At least one peer-reviewed study or official source found the effect or states the fact. A study can be small.

Recall tests gave larger benefits than recognition tests; the cover-the-options habit is our adaptation for multiple choice.

The best gap was a larger share of short delays and a smaller share of long ones.

Sources

  • Rowland, C. A. (2014). The effect of testing versus restudy on retention: A meta-analytic review of the testing effect. Psychological Bulletin, 140(6), 1432-1463. doi.org/10.1037/a0037559
  • Butler, A. C., & Roediger, H. L. (2007). Testing improves long-term retention in a simulated classroom setting. European Journal of Cognitive Psychology, 19(4-5), 514-527. doi.org/10.1080/09541440701326097
  • Cepeda, N. J., Vul, E., Rohrer, D., Wixted, J. T., & Pashler, H. (2008). Spacing effects in learning: A temporal ridgeline of optimal retention. Psychological Science, 19(11), 1095-1102. doi.org/10.1111/j.1467-9280.2008.02209.x
  • Cepeda, N. J., Pashler, H., Vul, E., Wixted, J. T., & Rohrer, D. (2006). Distributed practice in verbal recall tasks: A review and quantitative synthesis. Psychological Bulletin, 132(3), 354-380. doi.org/10.1037/0033-2909.132.3.354
  • Kornell, N. (2009). Optimising learning using flashcards: Spacing is more effective than cramming. Applied Cognitive Psychology, 23(9), 1297-1317. doi.org/10.1002/acp.1537

  1. Vulnerability Managementmarked sure

    An OpenVAS scan at a law firm flags CVE-2021-41773 (Apache path traversal) on a Debian web server because the banner reports Apache/2.4.49. The sysadmin replies that Debian backports security fixes without changing the version string, and dpkg shows apache2 2.4.49-4+deb11u1. The analyst must decide how to record the finding. What is the correct classification and next step?

    Answer: D. Probable false positive; check the changelog for the CVE fix, test the traversal request, then document the result before closing

    Banner-based detection reports the upstream version string, and distributions that backport fixes keep the original string while patching the code. NIST SP 800-40 Rev. 4 treats verification of what is actually installed as part of patch management, and a finding is closed as a false positive only after validation.

    Source: NIST SP 800-40 Rev. 4, Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning

  2. Reporting and Communicationmarked sure

    A SOC lead at a bank wants to share indicators from an active intrusion with a peer bank's security team so they can check for the same actor. The incident is not public, and the bank's legal team says details must stay inside the peer bank itself, with nothing passed to its customers, clients or parent company. Which Traffic Light Protocol marking should the report carry?

    Answer: D. TLP:AMBER+STRICT, which limits disclosure to the recipient's own organisation and excludes clients

    FIRST's TLP 2.0 defines four labels. TLP:AMBER permits the recipient to share within their organisation and with its clients on a need-to-know basis.

    Source: FIRST Traffic Light Protocol (TLP) 2.0

  3. Security Operationsmarked sure

    After a contractor's VPN credentials were phished, an attacker at a bank reached a payroll database from the VPN address pool even though the contractor only needed a ticketing portal. The CISO asks the security architect for the design change that would have stopped this. Which recommendation reflects zero trust architecture as NIST SP 800-207 defines it?

    Answer: A. Put a policy enforcement point in front of each application and authorise every request per session by identity and device posture, regardless of network location

    NIST SP 800-207 defines zero trust around the principle that being on a network segment grants no implicit access; each resource request is evaluated by a policy decision point and enforced by a policy enforcement point using subject identity, device state, and other signals.

    Source: NIST SP 800-207, Zero Trust Architecture

  4. Vulnerability Management

    A DevOps engineer at a SaaS startup reviews application logs for a feature that fetches a preview image from any URL a user supplies. One log line shows a request to http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/ returning HTTP 200 with a 1.2 KB body. The request originated from the application server itself. What vulnerability class is this, and what is the right fix?

    Answer: A. Server-side request forgery (CWE-918); validate the destination against an allow list of hosts, block link-local and private ranges, and require IMDSv2 tokens on the cloud instances

    The server made an outbound request to an attacker-chosen address, and that address was the cloud metadata endpoint, which hands out temporary IAM credentials. That is server-side request forgery as CWE-918 defines it.

    Source: CWE-918: Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)

  5. Vulnerability Management

    A penetration tester at an MSP scans a client's DMZ host with nmap -sS -p 22,80,443,8443 203.0.113.40. The output reads: 22/tcp filtered ssh, 80/tcp open http, 443/tcp open https, 8443/tcp closed https-alt. The client asks whether SSH is reachable from the internet. What is the accurate answer, and what distinguishes it from port 8443?

    Answer: B. Port 22 is undetermined because no reply or an ICMP unreachable came back, pointing to a firewall; 8443 is closed because the host sent a RST

    Nmap's port-scanning documentation defines the states precisely. Open means an application accepted the SYN. Closed means the port is accessible but the host sent a RST, so no listener is present.

    Source: Nmap Reference Guide, Port Scanning Basics

  6. Reporting and Communication

    A SOC manager at an MSP presents quarterly metrics to a client's board. One slide shows: phishing incident opened 09:10, malicious email delivered 06:42, credential reset and mailbox rules removed 11:55. The board asks which of these numbers reflects how quickly the team notices attacks versus how quickly it stops them. What are the correct metrics and values?

    Answer: A. MTTD is delivery to detection, 2 hours 28 minutes; MTTR is detection to containment, 2 hours 45 minutes

    NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 recommends tracking incident data such as the time from an incident's start to its discovery and the time from discovery to each response step, and CySA+ frames those as MTTD and MTTR.

    Source: NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, Section 3.4.2 Using Collected Incident Data

  7. Reporting and Communication

    A public US-listed company discovers a material cybersecurity incident on a Tuesday. Per SEC Item 1.05 of Form 8-K (effective December 2023), what is the disclosure deadline?

    Answer: B. Within four business days of determining the incident is material

    SEC Item 1.05 of Form 8-K (released July 2023, effective December 2023) requires disclosure within four business days of the determination that an incident is material. The trigger is materiality determination, not incident discovery.

    Source: SEC Cybersecurity Disclosure Rules

  8. Reporting and Communication

    At 14:20 a SOC analyst at a logistics firm confirms that ransomware has encrypted the warehouse management system and a ransom note names the company. The CEO is travelling, a journalist has already emailed the press office, and a customer is asking why shipments stopped. The incident response plan lists escalation contacts. Who should the analyst notify first, and how?

    Answer: C. Declare the incident via the escalation path and brief the incident commander, who involves executives and legal so designated owners issue external communications

    NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 states that incident notification should follow the procedures in the response plan, with the incident handling team informing management and the parties the plan designates, and it warns against ad hoc external communication.

    Source: NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, Section 3.2.7 Incident Notification

Review on: Oct 26, Oct 28, Nov 1, Nov 15.

Exam-day packet

From the exam owner's own published policies. Each line carries the page it came from. Confirm on those pages before exam day; policies change.

Format and clock

CompTIA publishes up to 85 questions in 165 minutes (CS0-004). Where you should be on the clock:

Share of the examQuestionMinutes used, at most
25%2141
50%4383
75%64124
100%85165

Your median is 48 seconds per question over 20 timed answers. At that pace 85 questions take about 68 of the 165 minutes allowed.

Checklist

ID
  • Two original, unexpired IDs: a primary government-issued one with a recent photo, and a secondary one with at least your name and signature, or name and photo. No photocopies.
  • The first and last name you registered with must match both IDs exactly.
  • IDs must be issued by the country you test in. Without a qualifying primary ID from that country, bring a passport plus a secondary ID.
  • Testing online (OnVUE): U.S. military IDs are not accepted under any circumstance.
Check-in
  • Online: check-in opens 30 minutes before your appointment. More than 15 minutes late and you will not be allowed to test.
  • Online: run the OnVUE system test on the same device and network you will use. Restart the computer before you start.
  • Test center: you will be photographed before testing; no photo, no exam.
What is allowed
  • Online: a clear desk. Only the exam computer. No books, notes, scrap paper, pens, food, drinks, or a second display. No touch screens, no virtual machines.
  • Online: a private, quiet, well-lit room, not a public space. Face and ears in full view: no hats, hoods, scarves, headphones, or earbuds.
  • Online: nobody may enter the room, pets included. An interruption revokes the exam.
  • Online: the session is recorded by webcam and microphone; if you do not want to be recorded, test at a Pearson VUE center.
Breaks
  • CompTIA exams run in a single session with no scheduled breaks, at a test center or online.
  • Online: no breaks at all, except with a prior-approved accommodation and only at a test center. Use the restroom before check-in.
  • If you need an accommodation, arrange it with Pearson VUE before your exam date.
Sources
Exam-day habits, with the evidence behind each
  • Read the owner’s handbook for the ID you must bring, what you may take into the room and the check-in time. Read it at registration and again the week before.
  • Pack the required ID and nothing the rules forbid, check the route a day ahead and plan to arrive well before check-in.
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDProtect sleep in the final week and do not trade it for extra study. (Diekelmann and Born, 2010 and others)
  • PLAUSIBLEWhere the exam lets you go back, flag a stubborn question and move on, then spend leftover time on the flags. Divide the minutes by the questions first and keep a margin. (Every scored item counts the same on a number-right test; no study tested a flagging rule.)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDChange an answer only when you can state a reason. In real-exam datasets most changes went from wrong to right, so “never change your first answer” is a myth. (Bauer et al., 2007 and others)
  • EVIDENCE-BACKEDWhere wrong answers cost nothing, leave no question blank. Check the owner’s scoring rule first. (Budescu and Bar-Hillel, 1993)
  • PLAUSIBLEIf nerves hit, tell yourself the energy is helping. Results are mixed, so try it on a practice mock first. (Jamieson et al., 2010 and others)
  • PLAUSIBLEIf you freeze, take slow breaths. No study tested this on exams, so it is a reasonable habit and not a finding. (Zaccaro et al., 2018)

EVIDENCE-BACKED At least one peer-reviewed study or official source found the effect or states the fact. A study can be small.

PLAUSIBLE Reasonable and partly studied, but not tested on exams, or the results are mixed.

A practical step, not a research finding.

Sleep supports consolidation; sacrificing sleep to study went with worse next-day performance in teenagers.

Every scored item counts the same on a number-right test; no study tested a flagging rule.

Most answer changes went from wrong to right in several real-exam datasets. There is no meta-analysis, and the benefit varies by student and exam.

Under number-right scoring answering is never worse than omitting.

Reappraisal raised scores on the GRE, in a math class and for first-year college students, but the samples were small or specific, one message did not help upper-year students and we found no large independent replication.

A thin body of research on slow breathing in healthy people, none on exams.

Sources

  • Diekelmann, S., & Born, J. (2010). The memory function of sleep. Nature Reviews Neuroscience, 11(2), 114-126. doi.org/10.1038/nrn2762
  • Gillen-O'Neel, C., Huynh, V. W., & Fuligni, A. J. (2013). To study or to sleep? The academic costs of extra studying at the expense of sleep. Child Development, 84(1), 133-142. doi.org/10.1111/j.1467-8624.2012.01834.x
  • Bauer, D., Kopp, V., & Fischer, M. R. (2007). Answer changing in multiple choice assessment: Change that answer when in doubt, and spread the word! BMC Medical Education, 7, 28. doi.org/10.1186/1472-6920-7-28
  • Merry, J. W., Elenchin, M. K., & Surma, R. N. (2021). Should students change their answers on multiple choice questions? Advances in Physiology Education, 45(1), 182-190. doi.org/10.1152/advan.00090.2020
  • Pagni, S. E., Bak, A. G., Eisen, S. E., Murphy, J. L., Finkelman, M. D., & Kugel, G. (2017). The benefit of a switch: Answer-changing on multiple-choice exams by first-year dental students. Journal of Dental Education, 81(1), 110-115. doi.org/10.1002/j.0022-0337.2017.81.1.tb06253.x
  • Couchman, J. J., Miller, N. E., Zmuda, S. J., Feather, K., & Schwartzmeyer, T. (2016). The instinct fallacy: The metacognition of answering and revising during college exams. Metacognition and Learning, 11(2), 171-185. doi.org/10.1007/s11409-015-9140-8
  • Kruger, J., Wirtz, D., & Miller, D. T. (2005). Counterfactual thinking and the first instinct fallacy. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 88(5), 725-735. doi.org/10.1037/0022-3514.88.5.725
  • Budescu, D., & Bar-Hillel, M. (1993). To guess or not to guess: A decision-theoretic view of formula scoring. Journal of Educational Measurement, 30(4), 277-291. doi.org/10.1111/j.1745-3984.1993.tb00427.x
  • Jamieson, J. P., Mendes, W. B., Blackstock, E., & Schmader, T. (2010). Turning the knots in your stomach into bows: Reappraising arousal improves performance on the GRE. Journal of Experimental Social Psychology, 46(1), 208-212. doi.org/10.1016/j.jesp.2009.08.015
  • Jamieson, J. P., Peters, B. J., Greenwood, E. J., & Altose, A. J. (2016). Reappraising stress arousal improves performance and reduces evaluation anxiety in classroom exam situations. Social Psychological and Personality Science, 7(6), 579-587. doi.org/10.1177/1948550616644656
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